Huehuecoyotl
Monthly Donor
Could he have successfully conquered Thrace and Greece, and even Egypt if he had lived longer? More importantly, can the empire he leaves behind survive, and for how long?
Could he have successfully conquered Thrace and Greece, and even Egypt if he had lived longer? More importantly, can the empire he leaves behind survive, and for how long?
As for the vitality of the empire that he leaves be, I fear that not much will change at best and its decline might actually accelerate.
Nonsense. The Romans were the real reason it went into an unrecoverable decline.
But its own troubles were quite enough to make - and I say this as a Seleucid fan - its failure (at the goals it set itself, not necessarily surviving longer) likely.
Too thinly spread out with too many enemies.
Not so much doomed to be conquered in the sense of the latter as that the precious military manpower of the kingdom simply wasn't able to do everything, and it was in a position kinda requiring it to do "everything".
Yes, but without the Romans meddling in their affairs, they will almost certainly conquer Ptolemaic Egypt. And that in itself will be of huge help to them.
And why do you say almost certainly?
Because they easily should have conquered them OTL had Rome not meddled in their affairs. Seriously, the Romans were the only thing keeping Ptolemaic Europe afloat. Even then, had Antiochus killed Ptolemy IV at Raphia...there is no Egyptian heir, and it is hard to believe Antiochus would not follow up by marching on Alexandria.
Because they easily should have conquered them OTL had Rome not meddled in their affairs. Seriously, the Romans were the only thing keeping Ptolemaic Europe afloat. Even then, had Antiochus killed Ptolemy IV at Raphia...there is no Egyptian heir, and it is hard to believe Antiochus would not follow up by marching on Alexandria.
Is it plausible that they could have conquered Egypt absent Roman demands? If so, then why is there a need to parse this further? If not, then say that.So it was almost inevitable because they easily should have done it.
Nonsense. The Romans were the real reason it went into an unrecoverable decline.
Is it plausible that they could have conquered Egypt absent Roman demands? If so, then why is there a need to parse this further? If not, then say that.
Is it plausible that they could have conquered Egypt absent Roman demands? If so, then why is there a need to parse this further? If not, then say that.
While it might be an exaggeration to say Selucids can almost surely conquer Egypt absent Rome, I don't see much difference from that if you say it's possible Selucids can conquer Egypt absent Rome for the purposes of the discussion.I guess I'm one of those insane maniacs who cares about details, but there's a substantial difference between "it's possible" and "it is inevitable/very likely" in my understanding of the English language.
But that's neither here nor there. My problem is that I'm not following why it was so very likely barring Roman meddling - all slydesertfox said is that absent Roman meddling it would have succeeded because it was very likely to succeed.
But why it was so likely to succeed is not explained. We're just told that the Romans were the only thing keeping the Ptolemies afloat as if it didn't need anything as helpful to the student as sources or explanations for why the Ptolemies were so dependent on Roman support.
Subsequently (by over a century) it's true that Antiochus IV had the Ptolemies beaten before Rome bailed them out. However the Maccabean revolt wasn't far off, which would have cut communications between Syria and Egypt and provided a golden opportunity for a Ptolemaic restoration.
Yes, because contending with rebellious satraps turned kings and Iranian nomads had nothing to do to sap the strength of the Seleucid Empire. Oh no, it was just the Romans who were in the way of Seleucid conquest.
And what's stopping Rome once it has the ability to send armies to Asia Minor?