What if Germany in WWII had calculated that maximum possible production of appropriate quality weapons meant avoiding slave labour?
From the statistics I have seen and one or two people I have known who had family working as slaves in those factories the slaves did as little as possible, as badly as possible and sabotaged everything possible. I have seen calculations that given all that and the number of guards it would actually have made better economic sense to send the slaves home and have the guards do the work instead. Other countries of course brought a far bigger percentage of women into the workplace to keep up production, but AS I UNDERSTAND IT the Nazi's kept this to a minimum and used slaves instead.
So, would it work? Was it possible to mobilise enough German women into the factories to do the work? Would having the workers want to produce more and better instead of less and worse change anything meaningful - reliable King Tiger tanks? - or would the difference be marginal?
From the statistics I have seen and one or two people I have known who had family working as slaves in those factories the slaves did as little as possible, as badly as possible and sabotaged everything possible. I have seen calculations that given all that and the number of guards it would actually have made better economic sense to send the slaves home and have the guards do the work instead. Other countries of course brought a far bigger percentage of women into the workplace to keep up production, but AS I UNDERSTAND IT the Nazi's kept this to a minimum and used slaves instead.
So, would it work? Was it possible to mobilise enough German women into the factories to do the work? Would having the workers want to produce more and better instead of less and worse change anything meaningful - reliable King Tiger tanks? - or would the difference be marginal?