Why no "Vlad the Impaler" types in Western Europe?

BBadolato

BBadolato

cincpac overboard said:
Maybe I'm wrong in my impression, but there doesn't seem to be a close analog to Vlad Tepes in Western Europe during the late medieval period. Vlad had his "Easter Massacre" of those boyars and their wives and children who attended a feast he hosted. Contrast this to Richard II of England, who in the period of 1397-1399 condemned three of his chief rivals to death, although one sentence was commuted to exile for life.

Although I don't believe the following scenario is at all plausible, let's say that Richard II calls a special Parliament where not only his chief rivals but all of their supporters, down to the level of barons, are required to attend. Once they have arrived, Richard has them rounded up and executed by drawing and quartering. What would be the blowback (political, military, and ecclesiastical) from such a ruthless action? Why by contrast was Vlad Tepes able to commit his atrocities and come out more secure in his position than before?

EDIT: I'm not saying the royalty of western Europe couldn't be brutal and capricious, just that they did not seem to typically engage in the mass slaughter that characterized Vlad Tepes' rule. I'm just looking for explanations from those knowledgeable on the time and place in question as to what political and societal forces might have acted as a restraint on mass violence upon a sovereign's political opponents.
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Because you had different political systems at play. In Western Europe you seldom had to deal with the nobility without some kind of established boundaries, like a governing body. In parts of Eastern Europe, you did have nobles with considerable influence without any way to keep them in check, for example Wallachia and Moldavia were absolutely chaotic in terms of dynastic instability between claimants, which is the context of the Wallachia that Vlad Tepes ruled.
 
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