You're still not making any sense. BlondieBC claimed the effects of the blockade on occupied Poland were ripe for propaganda exploitation. I pointed out that Germany was forcing food exports from Poland to Germany.
The entire exchange:
BlondieBC: UK prevents food shipments to Poland - Many more deaths than Belgium, little PR.
dduff442:But Germany was extracting large amounts of food from Poland which was otherwise a food exporter. How was Germany to gain PR advantage from this?
Zmflavius:The same way the UK got PR from preventing food shipments to a net food importer, by having better propagandists.
dduff442:This is just nonsensical. How did Britain gain a propaganda advantage from the blockade?
Zmflavius:That's what I mean, they didn't, but it was there to be exploited. Germany, however, failed to do so effectively, and Britain concentrated on Belgium.
So my question remains the same: How is Germany to derive a propaganda advantage from the blockade's effects on Poland while itself profiting from the seizure of Polish (and Lithuanian and Ukrainian) food?
My comparison referred to the blockade on food shipments to Germany, not necessarily Poland. It was intended as a comparison, as I said, not as a statement.