During WWII the warring powers all had substantial poison gas stockpiles, but also had a "no first use" policy. Under what circumstances would any of the powers have used gas, and how would it effect the outcome of the war?
A few ideas...
1: In the event of Operation Marine-mammal-which-shall-not-be-mentioned I believe I recall Churchill saying that Britain would use gas to defend Britain itself from invasion.
2: Possible use of gas in the latter part of the BoB, a gas attack probably would have caused massive civilian casualties in London.
3: Use is quite possible on the Eastern Front, especially as an attempt to salvage the situation once it begins detiorating.
4: The US was considering breaking it's no first use policy if an invasion of the Japanese Home Islands was neccesary.
Anyone else care to offer thoughts on the matter?
A few ideas...
1: In the event of Operation Marine-mammal-which-shall-not-be-mentioned I believe I recall Churchill saying that Britain would use gas to defend Britain itself from invasion.
2: Possible use of gas in the latter part of the BoB, a gas attack probably would have caused massive civilian casualties in London.
3: Use is quite possible on the Eastern Front, especially as an attempt to salvage the situation once it begins detiorating.
4: The US was considering breaking it's no first use policy if an invasion of the Japanese Home Islands was neccesary.
Anyone else care to offer thoughts on the matter?