I've been looking through the 'Anglish Moot' wiki that espouses Anglo-Saxon linguistic purism, or however the term is on Wikipedia. It brought up some questions in my mind.
This is a broad area to ponder on, but if the Norman Invasion of 1066 never happened or English at least resisted the (admittedly massive) Norman French influence on the language....
1) Would English-speakers still have a hard-on for introducing French terminology into our language? England is still right next to France, and France and French has historically been a prestigious area/language of Europe.
2) Would Anglos still have the great inkhorn debate with introducing hundreds of Latin and Greek terms into the language? Would we even have one in the first place?
3) How similar would English be to Dutch, German, and the Scandinavian languages?
4) Would there be any immediate spelling or grammar changes without the above influences?
This is a broad area to ponder on, but if the Norman Invasion of 1066 never happened or English at least resisted the (admittedly massive) Norman French influence on the language....
1) Would English-speakers still have a hard-on for introducing French terminology into our language? England is still right next to France, and France and French has historically been a prestigious area/language of Europe.
2) Would Anglos still have the great inkhorn debate with introducing hundreds of Latin and Greek terms into the language? Would we even have one in the first place?
3) How similar would English be to Dutch, German, and the Scandinavian languages?
4) Would there be any immediate spelling or grammar changes without the above influences?