MerryPrankster said:
Question on Anglicization...
How exactly did the Romano-Celtic inhabitants of the land become "Anglicized"?
Was it just a matter of speaking their language, or did they adopt wholesale the Germanic way of living (incl. religion--the Britons were Christians and the Saxons were not)?
Good question, not easy to answer. Conventionally it is said that Christianity vnished from England until re-introduced from Rome. But the fact that there even was a Synod of Whitby (c. 670 or so), in which the English opted for Roman rather than Celtic practice implies that the Celtic church also had some presence, whether continual or re-introduced. I think new settlement patterns appeared, but that could be people adopting techniques they saw their neighbors using.
One complication is distinguishing between the culture of elites and the mass of the population. Certainly the Saxon warlords established themselves as the elite, and the British elites either were driven out or anglicized - possibly the latter in the case of the West Saxon royal line.
For an example in much more recent times, think of what happened in Mexico after the Spanish conquest. The Mexican population is predominantly of Indian ancestry, but it is now mainly Spanish-speaking and in most respects culturally Hispanic.
But there's yet a further complication that must have played a part in Britain. What is now England was a Roman province (or 3 provinces), while Wales remained a frontier zone, and north of Hadrian's Wall, approximately Scotland, remained largely outside the Roman sphere.
The elites in the heartland of Roman Britain were Latin-speaking, but how far down the social scale did romanization go? What did the peasants speak? A language that, left to itself, would have developed into "Brito-Romance," somewhat akin to French? Or were they still speaking Brythonic?
My guess - purely a guess - is that one factor that helped anglicization along was that the territories the Saxons took over in the 5th and early 6th centuries already fell between two stools, in both language and culture. Romanization was too thin on the ground for a Romance vernacular to survive as it did in northern Gaul (becoming French), but it was also not Celtic enough for a Celtic language and culture to survive as in Wales. That left a sort of vacuum into which anglicization moved more easily.
Worth what you paid for it!
-- Rick