1784; Slavery Prohibited in the American West

I was reading in my American History textbook that a bill that would prohibit slavery in the trans-Appalachian West, and did suceeded in doing so in the the Northwest Territories in 1787. My question is what would happen if the first bill would have pasted?
 
Hm, how would this affect the Louisiana Purchase? After all, I believe Louisiana had slavery before annexation...
 
Slavery was legal almost everywhere before the 1820s... from Canada to Argentina..
Not in Massachusetts, though... :D

Anyway, it would be interesting to see the effects of this, but did the bill even have a chance of passing? So basically only the coastal South would be allowed to have Slavery?
 
Not in Massachusetts, though... :D

Anyway, it would be interesting to see the effects of this, but did the bill even have a chance of passing? So basically only the coastal South would be allowed to have Slavery?
As I said before it was only one vote short, so I'd say yes, it did, given the right person in one of those that voted against it places.
 
Sounds like that - and I guess that's the reason it wouldn't win. Unless for I don't know which reasons the Southerners would think that the end of slavery is near anyways.
 
Sounds like that - and I guess that's the reason it wouldn't win. Unless for I don't know which reasons the Southerners would think that the end of slavery is near anyways.
Up until about the 1830s there had been great opptimism about Slavery dieing out.

These are the points the textbook gives (Its talking about the orgins of Anti-slavery in the US, a good summary if nothing else)

A series of events illustrate the revolutionary generation's unease with slavery.
  • In 1770, Massachusetts debated a bill "to prevent the...inslaving Mankind in the Province."
  • In 1774, the Continental Congress prohibited the Atlantic slave trade.
  • Also in 1774, Vermont became the first political jurisdiction to outlaw slavery when it prohibited the institution in its Constitution.
  • In 1780, Pennsylvania became the first state to vote to end slavery, when it adopted a gradual emancipation plan.
  • In 1782, Virginia repealed its ban on private manumissions; Delaware did the same in 1787 and Maryland in 1790.
  • In 1783, Thomas Jefferson proposed that Virginia outlaw the introduction of any more slaves into the state and declare all African Americans born after Dec. 31, 1800, free.
  • In 1784, the leaders of the Methodists--the fastest growing religious denomination in Delaware, Maryland, and Virginia--prohibited slaveholders from joining the church and called on Methodists who owned slaves to free them.
During and immediately after the Revolution, all the states prohibited the Atlantic slave trade; Georgia was the last in 1798, though South Carolina temporarily reopened the trade in 1803, provoking shock in the other states. At the same time, all the northern states committed themselves to emancipation. Vermont outlawed slavery in its constitution; Massachusetts and New Hampshire ended slavery by judicial decree. Pennsylvania, Connecticut, and Rhode Island adopted gradual emancipation measures. Even in states where slave holding interests were deeply entrenched, gradual emancipation schemes adopted. New York passed a gradual abolition law in 1799 and New Jersey in 1804. For a time it seemed that Maryland and Delaware might adopt similar legislation.

The revolution had also disrupted slavery's hold in the south, albeit for a short time. A nearly a quater of Georgia and South Carolina's Slave Populations had become free, mostly through escape.

Up until the opitimism of slavery dieing out had died out the period between the revolution and the growth of the slave population to over a million it looked like slavery was die off through poltics.
 
"A nearly a quarter of Georgia and South Carolina's Slave Populations had become free, mostly through escape."

Interesting, didn't know that. What happened with them? The free Black population stayed rather small AFAIK, and not all of them will have gone to Liberia.
 
The 5000 that escaped from Georgia and the 20,000 of South Carolina likely fled north... and most of them wouldn't have gone to Liberia, as it wasn't up and running for a few years more and colonization wasn't popular with leaders among freed slaves. Expatriation really didn't start until Jefferson attempt with Gabriel's Revolt, which wasn't until 1800.

My POD takes place in effect in 1784. 16 years difference, during the height of antislavery optimism...and it effectively limits slavery to the South-eastern Seaboard. With the general decline of slavery outside of the cottonbelt (as Slavery was decling in the Northern Tier, and increasing in the Southern tier of slave states when OTL's civil War came up. Thus it is my speculaton that South Carolina and Georgia would be the only ones with slaves naturally.)
 

Jasen777

Donor
It's probably enough to push Virginia into adopting gradual emancipation.

It's tough to say how Alabama/Mississippi/Arkansas (I can't really guess) would develop without slavery and Louisiana would be an interesting case.
 

Jasen777

Donor
Now that I think about it, one consequence is likely to be more European migration to the South (the area without slavery). Compared to the North, the south had very little European immigration, it's though mostly because they didn't want to or couldn't compete with slaves.
 
Now that I think about it, one consequence is likely to be more European migration to the South (the area without slavery). Compared to the North, the south had very little European immigration, it's though mostly because they didn't want to or couldn't compete with slaves.
One of the reasons that the Indian Territories formed was that land was undesirable to use for slavery-related agriculture. These states might retain their Native American Tribes rather than being pushed out.
 
Not at all.
I also believe there would be a purchase, though the Act of Congress might not apply to the Trans-Mississippi West... (One of the stipulations of the treaty which banned slavery from the Old Northwest only had it North of the Ohio and East of the Mississippi.)
 

Glen

Moderator
I wonder if the 1784 law would be considered to apply to the lands of the Louisiana Purchase automatically, or would it be considered a different case.

By the time of the Louisiana Purchase, even if Slave States stayed such, they would be outnumbered 2 to 1. However, there is no guarantee that there wouldn't be knock-off effects leading to further abolition in the Slave States. Then again, there might be a backlash against the act so narrowly passed.

Perhaps a split decision. The Border States go for gradual abolition, whereas the Lower South goes in for a harder stance, fed even more once the Cotton Gin is invented. I've often thought that in some situation like this, we might very well see proud South Carolina try for its independence, relying on the precedent of the Revolution to justify its actions. Perhaps it pulls in the other slave states as well...only to be rather soundly crushed by the rest of the United States.

Now then, WHEN would things come to a head? The Louisiana Purchase could be just that sort of trigger. Here the US buys all new territory, technically already allowing Slavery. The Free States of course expect the territory beyond the Mississippi to be free soil, just like the rest of the US West. The Slave States, outnumbered and feeling rather unheard, demand that the Louisiana stay Slave, so they can see some chance of equal numbers of Free and Slave states within the Union. However, this will be voted down. South Carolina votes Secession, maybe Georgia and perhaps even North Carolina, though this one is doubtful. I assume here that Virginia had gone gradual abolition before the invention of the Cotton Gin.
 
Southern 'nationalism' really didn't start until the 1830s. The Louisanna Purchase might be too early, which is around the same time which the South started viewing slavery in a more postive light.
 
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